With each subscription of the Mathematics Olympiad Test, we provide you with 5 Mock Tests. These Mock Tests are from the core topics of the subject, of the chosen grade. Please note, the topics are from the CBSE syllabus of the same grade. The degree of difficulty of the questions asked in the Mock Tests is of higher level.
With each subscription of the Physics Olympiad Test, we provide you with 5 Mock Tests. These Mock Tests are from the core topics of the subject, of the chosen grade. Please note, the topics are from the CBSE syllabus of the same grade. The degree of difficulty of the questions asked in the Mock Tests is of higher level.
With each subscription of the Chemistry Olympiad Test, we provide you with 5 Mock Tests. These Mock Tests are from the core topics of the subject, of the chosen grade. Please note, the topics are from the CBSE syllabus of the same grade. The degree of difficulty of the questions asked in the Mock Tests is of higher level.
With each subscription of the Biology Olympiad Test, we provide you with 5 Mock Tests. These Mock Tests are from the core topics of the subject, of the chosen grade. Please note, the topics are from the CBSE syllabus of the same grade. The degree of difficulty of the questions asked in the Mock Tests is of higher level.
With each subscription of the English Olympiad Test, we provide you with 5 Mock Tests. These Mock Tests are from the core topics of the subject, of the chosen grade. Please note, the topics are from the CBSE syllabus of the same grade. The degree of difficulty of the questions asked in the Mock Tests is of higher level.
With each subscription of the Hindi Olympiad Test, we provide you with 5 Mock Tests. These Mock Tests are from the core topics of the subject, of the chosen grade. Please note, the topics are from the CBSE syllabus of the same grade. The degree of difficulty of the questions asked in the Mock Tests is of higher level.
Subject Name | Explanation | Topics | Numbers of Questions | |
---|---|---|---|---|
12th Class-Mathematics | In this Subject’s Olympiad test questions are asked from the topics as per the NCERT syllabus. The nature of questions are easy, medium and difficult and High Order Thinking(HOT) questions are also asked which need High order thinking to solve them. | Relations and Functions, Inverse Trigonometric Function, Matrices, Determinants, Continuity and Differentiability, Application of Derivatives, Integrals, Application of Integrals, Differential Equations, Vector Algebra, Three Dimensional Geometry, Linear Programming, etc. | 50 | |
Total | 50 |
Subject Name | Explanation | Topics | Numbers of Questions | |
---|---|---|---|---|
12th Class-Physics | In this Subject’s Olympiad test questions are asked from the topics as per the NCERT syllabus. The nature of questions are easy, medium and difficult and High Order Thinking(HOT) questions are also asked which need High order thinking to solve them. | Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity, Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic waves, Ray optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, etc. | 50 | |
Total | 50 |
Subject Name | Explanation | Topics | Numbers of Questions | |
---|---|---|---|---|
12th Class-Chemistry | In this Subject’s Olympiad test questions are asked from the topics as per the NCERT syllabus. The nature of questions are easy, medium and difficult and High Order Thinking(HOT) questions are also asked which need High order thinking to solve them. | Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, General Processes of Isolation of Elements, The p-Block Elements, The d- and f- Block Elements, Coordination Compounds, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Amines, etc. | 50 | |
Total | 50 |
Subject Name | Explanation | Topics | Numbers of Questions | |
---|---|---|---|---|
12th Class- Biology | In this Subject’s Olympiad test questions are asked from the topics as per the NCERT syllabus. The nature of questions are easy, medium and difficult and High Order Thinking(HOT) questions are also asked which need High order thinking to solve them. | Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual reproduction in Flowering Plants, Human reproduction, Reproductive Health, Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Evolution, Human health and Disease, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare, etc. | 50 | |
Total | 50 |
Section Numbers | Section Name | Explanation | Topics | Numbers of Questions |
---|---|---|---|---|
01 | Basic Structure | This section checks the knowledge in English grammar skills. | Nouns, Pronouns, Verbs, Adverbs, Adjectives, Articles and Adjectives, Prepositions & Conjunctions, Spellings and Analogies , Prefixes and Suffixes, Synonyms, Antonyms, Simile/ Metaphor/ etc. | 25 |
02 | Reading | This Section Checks the Child’s Reading Skill because Reading skill is the ability of a person to read, understand and interpret the words written on an article or page of other reading material. | Stories, letters, Invitations, Comprehensive Passages, Cloze Test and Various Information text. | 10 |
03 | Writing and Speaking | This Section Checks the Child’s Writing skills because the Writing skills are an important part of communication. Good writing skills allow you to communicate clearly with your message and allows for far larger visuals than face-to-face or telephonic conversations. | Ability to understand the different situations and dialogues accordingly, Writing words with correct Spellings, arranging the words to make Proper Sentence, Completing Dialogues, and Communication Ethics. | 10 |
04 | High Order Thinking (HOT) | In this Section questions are asked which need High order thinking to solve them. | In this Section Questions are asked from the topics of Section-1 of High Order Thinking. | 05 |
Total | 50 |
Section Numbers | Section Name | Explanation | Topics | Numbers of Questions |
---|---|---|---|---|
खण्ड-अ | व्याकरण | यह खण्ड हिंदी व्याकरण कौशल का आकलन करता है | | वर्ण/वर्णमाला, हिंदी भाषा परिचय, वर्तनी शुद्धि/शब्द शुद्धि, शब्द निर्माण/ वाक्य निर्माण, संज्ञा,सर्वनाम, विशेषण/विशेष्य, क्रिया/क्रिया के भेद, लिंग, वचन, कारक और धातु, संधि/संधि –विच्छेद, समास /समास –विग्रह, मुहावरे / लोकोत्तियाँ, पर्यायवाची शब्द, विलोम शब्द, उपन्यास, कहानियाँ, महाकाव्य,पत्रिकाएँ लेखक/लेखिकाएँ/संपादक, इत्यादि| | 30 |
खण्ड-ब | पठन कौशल | पठन कौशल एक व्यक्ति के लिए एक लेख या किसी अन्य पठन सामग्री के पृष्ठ पर लिखित शब्दों को पढ़ने, समझने और व्याख्या करने की क्षमता है | | अपठित गद्यांश/पद्यांश | 10 |
खण्ड –स | उच्च योग्यता | यह खण्ड हिंदी व्याकरण कौशल के अंतर्गत उन प्रश्नों के लिए है जिनका उत्तर देने के लिए उच्च सोच-विचार की जरूरत पड़ती है | | खण्ड-अ के अंतर्गत आने वाले सभी टॉपिक्स | | 10 |
Total | 50 |
Q.1- Consider the non-empty set consisting of children in a family and a relation R defined as aRb if a is brother of b. Then R is:
(a) symmetric but not transitive
(b) transitive but not symmetric
(c) neither symmetric nor transitive
(d) both symmetric and transitive
Q.2- The maximum number of equivalence relations on the set A = {1,2, 3} are:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Q.3- Total number of possible matrices of order 3 × 3 with each entry 2 or 0 is:
(a) 9
(b) 27
(c) 81
(d) 512
Q.4- If A and B are matrices of same order, then (AB'-BA') is a:
(a) skew symmetric matrix
(b) null matrix
(c) symmetric matrix
(d) unit matrix
Q.5- The points at which the tangents to the curve y = x3 - I2x + 18 are parallel to X-axis are:
(a) (2, -2), (-2, -34)
(b) (2, 34), (-2, 0)
(c) (0, 34), (-2, 0)
(d) (2, 2), (-2, 34)
Q.6- The function f(x) = tanx –x
(a) always increases
(b) always decreases
(c) never increases
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases.
Q.7- The area of the quadrilateral ABCD, where A(0,4,1), B (2, 3, -1), C(4, 5, 0) and D (2, 6,2), is equal to:
(a) 9 sq. units
(b) 18 sq. units
(c) 27 sq. units
(d) 81 sq. units
Q.8- The locus represented by xy + yz = 0 is:
(a) A pair of perpendicular lines
(b) A pair of parallel lines
(c) A pair of parallel planes
(d) A pair of perpendicular planes
Q.9- Find the equation of a plane which bisects perpendicularly the line joining the points A (2, 3, 4) and B (4, 5, 8) at right angles.
(a) x + 2y + 2z = 15
(b) x + 3y + 2z = 17
(c) x + y + 2z = 19
(d) 3x + y + 4z = 20
Q.10- If the line drawn from the point (-2, -1, -3) meets a plane at right angle at the point (1, -3, 3), find the equation of the plane.
(a) x - 2y + 6z – 27 = 0
(b) 3x - 2y + 6z – 27 = 0
(c) 4x - 2y + 5z – 25 = 0
(d) 3x - 2y + 6z – 30 = 0
Q.11- If two events are independent, then:
(a) they must be mutually exclusive
(b) the sum of their probabilities must be equal to 1
(c) (a) and (b) both are correct
(d) None of the above is correct
Q.12- Three persons, A, B and C, fire at a target in turn, starting with A. Their probability of hitting the target are 0.4,0.3 and 0.2 respectively. The probability of two hits is:
(a) 0.024
(b) 0.188
(c) 0.336
(d) 0.452
Q.13- If A and B are two matrices of the order 3 × m and 3 × n, respectively, and m = n, then the order of matrix (5A - 2B) is:
(a) m × 3
(b) 3 × 3
(c) m × n
(d) 3 × n
Q.14- A kite is moving horizontally at a height of 151.5 meters. If the speed of kite is 10 m/s, how fast is the string being let out; when the kite is 250 m away from the boy who is flying the kite? The height of boy is 1.5 m.
(a) 8m/s
(b) 6m/s
(c) 7m/s
(d) 9m/s
Q.15- If a + ib = c + id, then:
(a) a2 + c2 = 0
(b) b2 + c2 = 0
(c) b2 + d2 = 0
(d) a2 + b2 = c2 + d2
Q.1- A point charge +q is placed at a distance d from an isolated conducting plane. The field at a point P on the other side of the plane is:
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane.
(b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the plane.
(c) directed radially away from the point charge.
(d) directed radially towards the point charge.
Q.2- The Electric field at a point is:
(a) always continuous.
(b) continuous if there is no charge at that point.
(c) discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that point.
(d) discontinuous if there is a charge at that point.
Q.3- A positively charged particle is released from rest in an uniform electric field. The electric potential energy of the charge:
(a) remains a constant because the electric held is uniform.
(b) increases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(c) decreases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(d) decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field.
Q.4- Equipotential surfaces:
(a) are closer in regions of large electric fields compared to regions of lower electric fields.
(b) will be more crowded near sharp edges of a conductor.
(c) will be more crowded near regions of large charge densities.
(d) will always be equally spaced.
Q.5- Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of heat produced in the two cases is:
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:4
Q.6- The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decreases in diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be___
(a) 300%
(b) 200%
(c) 100%
(d) 50%
Q.7- The radius of curvature of the path of the charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is directly proportional to____
(a) the charge on the particle
(b) the momentum of the particle
(c) the energy of the particle
(d) the intensity of the field
Q.8- A charge moves in a circle perpendicular to a magnetic field. The time period of revolution is independent of:
(a) magnetic field
(b) charge
(c) mass of the particle
(d) velocity of the particle
Q.9- An incident ray strikes a plane mirror at an angle of 15° with the mirror. The angle between the incident ray and reflected ray is:
(a) 15°
(b) 30°
(c) 150°
(d) none of these
Q.10- For an object at infinity, a concave mirror produces an image at its focus which is:
(a) enlarged
(b) virtual
(c) erect
(d) real, inverted and diminished
Q.11- The rate of radiation of a black body at 0°C is E J/s. The rate of radiation of this black body at 273°C will be:
(a) 16E
(b) 8E
(c) 4E
(d) E
Q.12- The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to calculate the energy levels of an atom with many electrons. This is because:
(a) of the electrons not being subject to a central force.
(b) of the electrons colliding with each other
(c) of screening effects
(d) the force between the nucleus and an electron will no longer be given by Coulomb’s law.
Q.13- Two H atoms in the ground state collide inelastically. The maximum amount by which their combined kinetic energy is reduced is:
(a) 10.20 eV
(b) 20.40 eV
(c) 13.6 eV
(d) 27.2 eV
Q.14- The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because:
(a) number density of free current carriers increases.
(b) relaxation time increases.
(c) both number density of carriers and relaxation time increase.
(d) number density of current carriers increases, relaxation time decreases but effect of decrease in relaxation time is much less than increase in number density.
Q.15- When an electric field is applied across a semiconductor:
(a) electrons move from lower energy level to higher energy level in the conduction band.
(b) electrons move from higher energy level to lower energy level in the conduction band.
(c) holes in the valence band move from higher energy level to lower energy level.
(d) holes in the valence band move from lower energy level to higher energy level.
Q.1- Which of the following conditions favours the existence of a substance in the solid state?
(a) High temperature
(b) Low temperature
(c) High thermal energy
(d) Weak cohesive forces
Q.2- Which of the following is not a characteristic of a crystalline solid?
(a) Definite and characteristic heat of fusion.
(b) Isotropic nature.
(c) A regular periodically repeated pattern of arrangement of constituent particles in the entire crystal.
(d) A true solid
Q.3- Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?
(a) mole fraction
(b) parts per million
(c) mass percentage
(d) molality
Q.4- On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature solution feels cool to touch. Under which of the following cases dissolution of sugar will be most rapid?
(a) Sugar crystals in cold water.
(b) Sugar crystals in hot water.
(c) Powdered sugar in cold water.
(d) Powdered sugar in hot water.
Q.5- Considering the formation, breaking and strength of hydrogen bond, predict which of the following mixtures will show a positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(a) Methanol and acetone.
(b) Chloroform and acetone.
(c) Nitric acid and water.
(d) Phenol and aniline.
Q.6- Which of the following process does not occur at the interface of phases?
(a) crystallization
(b) heterogenous catalysis
(c) homogeneous catalysis
(d) corrosion
Q.7- Which of the following interface cannot be obtained?
(a) liquid-liquid
(b) solid-liquid
(c) liquid-gas
(d) gas-gas
Q.8- A number of elements are available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are _______________.
(a) Al and Fe
(b) Al and Cu
(c) Fe and Cu
(d) Cu and Ag
Q.9- In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with
(a) FeS
(b) CO
(c) Cu2S
(d) SO2
Q.10- Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of the following metals?
(a) Cu and Zn
(b) Ge and Si
(c) Zr and Ti
(d) Zn and Hg
Q.11- Glycogen is a branched chain polymer of a-D-glucose units in which chain is formed by Cl-C4 glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by the formation of C1-C6 glycosidic linkage. Structure of glycogen is similar to _________.
(a) Amylose
(b) Amylopectin
(c) Cellulose
(d) Glucose
Q.12- Which of the following polymer is stored in the liver of animals?
(a) Amylose
(b) Cellulose
(c) Amylopectin
(d) Glycogen
Q.13- Sucrose (cane sugar) is a disaccharide. One molecule of sucrose on hydrolysis gives _________.
(a) 2 molecules of glucose
(b) 2 molecules of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose
(c) 1 molecule of glucose + 1 molecule of fructose
(d) 2 molecules of fructose
Q.14- Which of the following polymers of glucose is stored by animals?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Amylose
(c) Amylopectin
(d) Glycogen
Q.15- Which of the statements about solutions of electrolytes is not correct?
(a) Conductivity of solution depends upon size of ions.
(b) Conductivity depends upon viscosiy of solution.
(c) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution.
(d) Conductivity of solution increases with temperature.
Q.1- The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because:
(a) Offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
(b) DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring
(c) Offspring are formed at different times
(d) DNA of parent and offspring are completely different.
Q.2- A multicellular, filamentous alga exhibits a type of sexual life cycle in which the meiotic division occurs after the formation of zygote. The adult filament of this alga has:
(a) haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(b) haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(c) haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia
(d) haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia.
Q.3- Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system.:
(a) Rete testis
(b) Epididymis
(c) Vasa efferentia
(d) Isthmus
Q.4- Morula is a developmental stage:
(a) Between the zygote and blastocyst
(b) Between the blastocyst and gastrula
(c) After the implantation
(d) Between implantation and parturition
Q.5- All genes located on the same chromosome:
(a) Form different groups depending upon their relative distance
(b) Form one linkage group
(c) Will not from any linkage groups
(d) Form interactive groups that affect the phenotype
Q.6- Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows:
(a) a direct relationship
(b) an inverse relationship
(c) a parallel relationship
(d) no relationship
Q.7- The theory of spontaneous generation stated that:
(a) life arose from living forms only
(b) life can arise from both living and non-living
(c) life can arise from non-living things only.
(d) life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.
Q.8- Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of:
(a) adaptive radiation
(b) transduction
(c) pre-existing variation in the population
(d) divergent evolution
Q.9- A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred to as:
(a) breed
(b) race
(c) variety
(d) species
Q.10- Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of:
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) millet
(d) tobacco
Q.11- C-peptide of human insulin is:
(a) A part of mature insulin molecule
(b) Responsible for formation of disulphide bridges
(c) Removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin
(d) Responsible for its biological activity.
Q.12- The site of production of ADA in the body is:
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Lymphocytes
(c) Blood plasma
(d) Osteocytes
Q.13- From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
Q.14- Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure:
(a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation.
(b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
Q.15- Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below, identify the infectious diseases.
(i) Cancer
(ii) Influenza
(iii) Allergy
(iv) Small pox
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Section-1-Basic Structure
Instruction: Fill in the blank with the correct form of the noun:
Q.1- Tomorrow, all the _________________ lives will be changed forever.
(a) Soldier
(b) soldiers
(c) soldier’s
(d) soldiers’
Instruction: Choose the correct Indefinite Pronoun to complete the sentence.
Q.2- I want to speak with ______________ who can solve my problem.
(a) everybody/nobody
(b) nothing/something
(c) anybody/somebody
(d) none
Instruction: Choose the appropriate article for the sentence below.
Q.3- I hate going to ________ school.
(a) a
(b) an
(c) the
(d) no article
Q.4- Which is the superlative form of the word “little”?
(a) less
(b) least
(c) smaller
(d) smallest
Instruction: Complete the following simile by choosing the correct word.
Q.5- My joke about the stray dogs went down like a lead ______________ There was just an embarrassed silence.
(a) balloon
(b) ball
(c) weight
(d) load
Instruction: Four alternatives are given below, find out the correct one.
Q.6- I ran the obstacle course in record time
(a) The obstacle course recorded time
(b) The obstacle course was run by me in record time
(c) The obstacle course was ran by me in record time
(d) The obstacle course was run by me in recorded time
Section-2-Reading:
Instruction: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
From far out in space, Earth looks like a blue ball. Since water covers three-fourths of the Earth’s surface, blue is the colour we see most. The continents look brown, like small islands floating in the huge, blue sea. White clouds wrap around the Earth like a light blanket The Earth is shaped like a sphere, or a ball. It is 25,000 miles around! It would take more than a year to walk around the whole planet. A spaceship can fly around the widest part of the sphere in only 90 minutes.
Even though spaceships have travelled to the Moon, people cannot visit the Moon without special suits. The Moon has no air or water. Plants and animals can’t live there either. Astronauts first landed on the Moon in 1969. After that, there were six more trips to the Moon. They brought back Moon rocks, which scientists are still studying. There are holes, or craters, ail over the Moon’s surface. Scientists believe that meteorites smashed into the Moon millions of years ago and formed the craters.
The Sun is the closest star to Earth. A star is a hot ball of burning gas. The Sun looks very big because it is so close. But the Sun is just a medium-sized star. Billions of far-away stars are much bigger than our Sun. The burning gases from the Sun are so hot that they warm the Earth from 93 million miles away! Even though the Sun is always glowing, the night here on Earth is dark. That’s because the Earth rotates, or turns around, every 24 hours, during the day, the Earth faces the Sun. Then we see light. During the night, the Earth turns away from the Sun. Then it faces the darkness of space. Each day we learn more about the Earth, the Moon, and the Sun.
Q.7- Why is blue the colour we see most when looking at Earth from outer space?
(a) Because most of the Earth is covered in land.
(b) Because the Sun’s rays make the Earth look blue.
(c) Because most of the Earth is covered in water.
(d) Because clouds wrap around the Earth.
Q.8- What does ‘formed’ mean?
(a) hit
(b) made
(c) broke
(d) stopped
Q.9- What causes daylight on Earth?
(a) The full Moon causes daylight
(b) Daylight is caused by the Earth facing away from the Sun.
(c) The heat of the Sun’s rays causes daylight.
(d) Daylight is caused by the Earth facing toward the Sun.
Q.10- Which of the following sentences BEST describes the Sun?
(a) The Sun looks small because it is so far from Earth
(b) The Sun is a ball of burning gases that gives the Earth heat and light.
(c) The Sun is a small star.
(d) The Sun is not as hot as it looks.
Q.11- Why did the astronauts bring rocks back from the Moon?
(a) Because they didn’t know if they would return to the Moon ever again.
(b) Because they wantd to prove that they went to the Moon.
(c) Because they wanted to remember how the Moon looked.
(d) Because they wanted to study them and learn more about the Moon.
Section-3- Writing and Speaking:
Instruction:(12-14) Following questions are based on Writing Proficiency , find out the best option from given alternatives.
Q.12- You are _________ a nice person ________ everybody likes to be your friend.
(a) such…as
(b) such…that
(c) same….as
(d) so…that
Q.13- Write only three answer,____________________ ?
(a) don’t you
(b) won’t you
(c) will you
(d) do you
Q.14- “Please, give me some eatables,” said a beggar to me.
(a) A beggar requested me that give him some eatables.
(b) A beggar requested me to gave him some eatables.
(c) A beggar requested me that gave some eatables.
(d) A beggar requested me to give him some eatables.
Instruction: The following question is based on Idiom. Find out a suitable alternative for the given sentence.
Q.15- Don't worry about that system error. It's a part issue or problem that is no longer a concern.
(a) Don't worry about that system error. It's water under the bridges
(b) Don't worry about that system error. It's under the bridge.
(c) Don't worry about that system error. It's water under the bridge.
(d) Don't worry about that system error. It's water the bridge.
Q.1 निम्नलिखित ध्वनियों में से नवीन विकसित ध्वनियाँ कौन हैं?
Q.2 ‘क’, ‘ग्’ ‘जू’ ‘फ’ ध्वनियां किस भाषा की हैं ?
निर्देश:(3-4)निम्न वाक्यों में प्रयुक्त होने वाले सही शब्द क्या हैं?
Q.3 चातक 'सुवाति' की बूँद का प्यासा होता है।
Q.4 सेनापति एक स्कस्त्र सैनिकों के साथ युद्ध क्षेत्र मे पहुंचा।
Q.5 निम्नलिखित में से 'कर्मधारय' समास किस शब्द में है?
निर्देश:नीचे दिए गए मुहावरे/लोकोक्ति का अर्थ बताने के लिए चार विकल्प दिए गए हैं। उपयुक्त अर्थ वाला विकल्प चुनिए-
Q.6 आए थे हरि भजन को ओटन लगे कपास
Q.7 निम्न में से कौन रीतिबद्ध काल के नहीं है?
Q.8 निम्नलिखित रचनाओं में से कौन एक यात्रा वृतांत है?
निर्देश: दिए गए पद्यांश को पढ़ें और फिर उसके नीचे दिए प्रश्नों का उत्तर सही विकल्प का चयन करके दें।
मै तूफानों में चलने का आदी हूँ
तुम मत मेरी मंजिल आसान करो|
है फूल रोकते, काँटे मुझे चलाते|
मरुस्थल, पहाड़ चलने की चाह बढ़ाते
सच कहता हूँ मुश्किलें न जब होती हैं
फूलों से पग आसान नहीं होता है
रुकने से पग गतिवान नहीं होता है
अवरोध नही, तो सम्भव नही प्रगति भी
मेरे पग तब चलने में भी शरमाते
मेरे संग चलने लगे हवाएँ जिससे
तुम पथ के कंण-कंण को तूफान करो|
मै तूफानों में चलने का आदी हूँ
तुम मत मेरी मंजिल आसान करो|
है नाश जहाँ निर्माण वहाँ होता है|
मैं बसा सकूँ नव स्वर्ग धरा पर जिसके
तुम मेरी हर बस्ती वीरान करो|
Q.9 कवि को आगे बढ़ने की प्रेरणा मिलती है:
Q.10 यदि मार्ग में बाधाएँ नही आतीं तो
Q.11 निष्क्रिय’ का विपरीतार्थक लिखिए
Q.12 कवि धरती पर क्या बसाना चाहता है?
Q.13 कवि दुनिया से क्या प्रार्थना कर रहा है?
निर्देश: दी गयी स्थापना(Assertion) और तर्क (Reason) को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ें और बहुविकल्पीय उत्तरों में से सही उत्तर का चयन करें?
Q.14 (A) स्थापना: रहस्यवाद की कविताओं में सबसे अधिक विरक्तिजनक दो बातें होती हैं- भावों में सच्चाई का अभाव और व्यंजना की कृत्रिमता।
(R) तर्क: क्योंकि भावों का संबंध विशुद्ध अध्यात्म से होता है।
निर्देश: दी गयी स्थापना(Assertion) और तर्क (Reason) को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़ें और बहुविकल्पीय उत्तरों में से सही उत्तर का चयन करें?
Q.15 कथन (Assertion) : हजारीप्रसाद द्विवेदी के निबंधों में पाण्डित्य साफ झलकता है, जो ऊपर से ओढ़ा हुआ दिखाई देता है ।
कारण (Reason) : द्विवेदी जी हिन्दी के सांस्कृतिक एवं ललित निबंधकार है । उनकी विद्वता, लोकजीवन के प्रति आस्था एवं भारत की सांस्कृतिक विरासत इन निबंधों में स्थान-स्थान पर व्यक्त हुई है|
EXAM PLATFORM
RANKING CRITERIA FOR CSC ACADEMY OLYMPIAD
AWARD AND RANKING MECHANISM/ CRITERIA